When Brown attempted to explain his work, he described the action of force in a dielectric as ponderomotive which is essentially a non-linear force.
http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/ar ... 1456900143
science direct wrote:A statistical mechanical derivation of the expressions for both pressure and ponderomotive force in a dielectric is given in terms of averages over microscopic quantities. The existence of microscopic long-range interactions leads to the possibility of defining pressure and ponderomotive force in different ways. A natural way is indicated of dividing the average of the microscopic force into long and short range contributions, which yields the form of the ponderomotive force proposed by Kelvin. It is also shown that, in statistical equilibrium, one may obtain Helmholtz's expression for the ponderomotive force. In the two cases pressure must be defined differently. The relation between these pressures is a predictd by thermodynamic theory.
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Sponsored in part by Air Research and Development Command, United States Air Force, through the European Office A.R.D.C.
Copyright © 1956 Published by Elsevier B.V.
Notice the date.
What I have found curious in the above is that the statement made says that the relationship is predicted by thermodynamics theory. Therefore, the ponderomotive force that Brown discusses about the force in a dielectric when placed in an electrostatic field can be explained in accepted scientific terms. Thus the Biefeld-Brown effect can be explained, and has been. Now this may not explain the gravity component but it does explain the force. It has been extrapolated that a Gravitor rides on a wave created in the aether or better yet - creates a displacement in the aether - and that displacement is the wave. The conondrum is how to prove that. This is why the need for a POP (Proof Of Principle) is highly important to establish the new "psuedoscience" into the realm of "established science", and that device must be reproducible by anyone. When that happens, new terms must created.
For example, in a forum once, someone used the term "resistance" to describe a physical process and the use of the word was correct in relation to electron flow in a wire. Another poster took the physical process described and attempted to use the very same terms to describe something entirely different that even defied the dictionary definition of the word. This would not have been accepted in the world of academia and thus, a process that may have been very plausible and effective would not have even made it to first base because of the misuse of a term already established.
Another example, a poster on another forum used the word "transductance" to describe an EHD (ElecytroHydroDynamic) device. The word itself describes action of semiconductors and the transfer of genetic material of bacterium. How can a word be used to describe two totally different actions? Actually, the word "transconductance" would have been a better use since it is already established as a transfer of electrons between asymmetric elements in a vacuum tube (valve) and more generally as the "transfer of conductance" between the output voltage versus the input voltage of which it is the reciprocal of resistance (which still holds true with Ohm's law). Thus, transconductance fits with other established laws of physics but the use of the word "transductance" does not. In the world of academia, a device that may very well be of use would again, not make it in the front the door due to ineptitude or ignorance.
In any event, it is very important that in order for psuedoscience to be accepted, terms must be created that explain the principle of that psuedoscience but those terms must not be "rewritten" from established use of the words in current science.
Now what happens when psuedoscience ends up rewriting current science?
Mikado